I’m Confused
Point: Dismissing the author’s intent is bad, even when doing legal interpretation (take a deep breath; it’s all one sentence!):
Textualists who adhere to a conception of interpretation that “democratizes” a text by intending to hand it over to the public (and that’s what convention is, a public expression of the breadth of prior meanings a given “culture” has come to recognize) — even if only while doing legal interpretation — lend credence to a linguistically incoherent (and yet increasingly institutionalized) view of language that, because it claims to be interpreting without appealing to intent (even if in practice it merely hides its usurpation of that intent), promotes an idea of language wherein the interpretive community not only determines meaning, but it does so while claiming it is interpreting the author’s meaning — having first dismissed his intent as irrelevant.
You can’t beat the 119-word sentence.
Counterpoint: Dismissing the author’s intent is OK:
The corporate intent of a multi-authored / ratified document is the collection of all the individual intentions that are used to signify the text as text. And, just as before, those individual intentions that don’t get signaled can be dismissed, just as if you were dealing with an individual who was signaling his meaning in a way that, without recourse to proximity and some give and take, would not be readily available to a good faith interpretation (that being one that appeals to what it believes are the intentions of the author/utterer).
Point: Dismissing the author’s intent is bad:
— to which I’d say that the worry of “textualists” is unfounded — and in fact is only an issue to those who don’t understand intentionalism; while the intentionalists’ concern is very real, given that the “textualist” methodology, as they describe it, allows them to dismiss the intent of the authors, leaving the requisite intent needed to make language language to be attached somewhere, and by some agency other than the person whose message is supposedly being “interpreted.”
Counterpoint: Dismissing the author’s intent is OK:
“Private intent” would presumably be an unsignaled intent, and so not one we need worry about from the perspective of legal interpretation, for reasons I’ve made clear time and again.
Point: Dismissing the author’s intent is bad:
The intent — whatever it is an[d] however much it is — is what makes the signs signs. Difficulty in pinning down what that intent is in every instance is not a justification for dismissing it.
I’m going to sue for whiplash.
What makes this set of seemingly contradictory passages remarkable, other than the turgid prose, is the fact that they all come from the same person — and from the same post, or comments to that post.
In the field of statutory interpretation, I have argued — hopefully with more clarity than we see on display above — that if the wording of a law is clear, textualist judges don’t really care what the legislators’ intent was. Accordingly, they will dismiss (refuse to concern themselves with) legislative intent, even if that intent completely contradicts the text. A textualist says to a legislator: your text can, will, and should be interpreted according to the fair reading that a reasonable public would give your words.
Which is either a completely outrageous and dangerous notion . . . or a completely obvious and unobjectionable notion. All according to the same person, in the passages above. Depending on which one you pick.
Can anyone explain this to me? Can anyone translate the above passages into English and reconcile them?