Patterico's Pontifications

8/10/2008

Why Are News Sources Reporting That John Edwards Claims His Affair Ended In 2006?

Filed under: Buffoons,Media Bias — Justin Levine @ 2:57 pm



[posted by Justin Levine]

Many news sources report that John Edwards is claiming that his affair with Hunter ended in 2006.

Even Fox News states: “Edwards said he told his wife everything about the affair after it ended in 2006.”

But has anyone bothered to watch Edwards’ Nightline interview (or read the transcript)?

Edwards claims that he first told his wife about the affair in 2006, and that the affair has “been over for a long time”.

But when Edwards is specifically asked how long the affair lasted, we get the usual obfuscations that politicians have in their standard playbook –

BOB WOODRUFF: Is this affair completely over?

JOHN EDWARDS: Oh yes, it’s been over for a long time.

WOODRUFF: How long did it last and when exactly did it end?

JOHN EDWARDS: Well, here’s the way I feel about this Bob. I think that my family is entitled to every detail. They’ve been told every detail. Elizabeth knows absolutely everything. I think beyond the basics, the fact that I made this mistake and I’m responsible for it and no one else. I think that’s where it stops in terms of the public because I think everything else is within my family and those privacy boundaries ought to be respected.

Has he specifically claimed that it ended in 2006 in some other media outlet that I’m not aware of? Not some vague, lawyerly implication mind you – but a direct, unambiguous assertion of it completely ending in 2006?

If he hasn’t, then news outlets should stop with the “2006” claim and instead report the truth – Edwards refuses to state when his affair ended.

[Update]: Numerous people have pointed to Edwards’ own statement that he released after he taped the ABC interview where he states: “With my family, I took responsibility for my actions in 2006 and today I take full responsibility publicly. But that misconduct took place for a short period in 2006. It ended then.”

Fair enough. But if he is willing to say that in his statement, am I the only one who finds it strange that he chose not to answer the question when asked by ABC? Do we need to ask him what he means by ‘misconduct’? Is he trying to pull a ‘Clinton’ here?

– Justin Levine

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